Please help our man in Vienna:
Yesterday in priesthood meeting we had our lesson on baptism and we were sure to cover Moroni 8 and the solemn mockery of God that infant baptism represents. We also talked about baptism for the dead, of course, and the fact that infants don’t have this ordinance performed for them because 1) see above and 2) all children are saved in the celestial kingdom pursuant to D&C 137.
It occurred to me that if we view baptism as necessary for the remission of sins, full stop, then it makes sense not to require it of the sinless. But since we also view baptism an individual’s expression of “moralische Selbstständigkeit” once they have reached the age of accountability to follow Christ and chose salvation, and given the essential role of moral agency in the plan of salvation, am I missing something obvious about LDS soteriology in wondering how salvation, even for deceased infants, is possible under conditions where it seems the individual is not capable of exercising moral agency? Or is the pre-mortal decision to come to earth regarded as sufficient expression of free will to avoid the pitfalls inherent in Lucifer’s “one soul shall not be lost” plan?